What is botany?
Botany is the study of all plant kingdom with plant life.Difference between plant cell and animal cell?
There is many differences are plant cell and animal cell
1)cell membrane found in plant cell but not found in animal cell.
2)Plastid and found in plant cell but not found in animal cell.
3)centrosome not find in plant cell but find in animal cell.
4)Vacoules presence large size in plant cell but small size in animal size.
Branches of botany are?
Branches of Botany
1)Cryptogamus 2)Phanerogamus
1)Cryptogamus devided by three type 2)Phanerogamus devided by two part
1)Thalophyta 1)Gymnosperm
2)Bryophyta 2)Angisperm
3)Pteridophyta
Thalophyta devided by three type Angiosperm devided by two part
1)Algae 1)Monocot
2)Fungi 2)Dicot
3)Bacteria
Where does the word Botany come from?
Botany word come from greek word Boskein. Boskein means "grazing".Who discovered the vacuole?
Itis said that anton Van leeuwenhoke Discovered it
What is cellular respiration?
production of ATP includes cellular respirationWhat are the 3 main microbes?
There is: Medical disciplines. Agricultural and soil microbiology. Marine biology and diverse environmental interactions of microbes to name a few.
How are DNA and RNA different?
Wrong! Both plants and animals have DNA and RNA. RNA is a single stranded molecule while DNA is double stranded. Both contain 4 different base pairs, 3 of which are the same for both RNA and DNA; Guanine, Adenine and Cytosine. Thymine, the 4th base pair found in DNA is replaced by Uracil in RNA.
http://www.civilserviceindia.com C.S.E. BOT ANY (MAIN) BOT ANY - 2005 PAPER - I Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300 Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any THREE of the remaining questions selecting at least ONE question from each Section. Provide diagrams in the answer books, wherever necessary. SECTION-A 1. Answer any three of the following (in not more than 200 words each) : 20x3=60 (a) Differentiate between conjugation and transduction in Bacteria. (b) Give an account of algae in food industry. (c) Write in short about mycotoxins. (d) Write about Bryophytes as indicators of mineral enrichment. 2. Write about the following: 20x3=60 (a) Range of thallus organization in Marchantiales. (b) Evolution of seed habit in Pteridophytes. (c) Characteristic features of Pythium. 3. Answer the following: 20x3=60 (a) Write a critical note on male gametophyte of Selaginella. (b) Write a critical note on somatic hybrid and cybrid. (c) Draw well labeled diagram of V.T.s. thallus of Anthoceros passing through Androecia (no description). 4. Write Notes on : 20x3=60 (a) Monoecious coenobium of Volvox. (b) Description of, conidia formation in Aspergillus. (c) Protoplast culture. SECTION B 5. Answer any three of the following (in not more than 200 words each): 20 x 3 = 60 (a) Give the salient features of Cycadales. (b) Explain secondary growth in dicotyledonous stem. (c) Explain pollination in Cycas. (d) Give a short account of any two plant fibres. 6. How will you distinguish between the following pairs of families on the basis of important floral characters? (a) Malvaceae and Brassicaceae 30 (b) Leguminosae and Solanaceae 30 7. Give an account of the pollen grain formation in dicots and monocots. 60 8. Write in short on the following: 20x3=60 (a) Give in short an account of five pulse yielding crops. (b) Differentiate between manoxylic and pycnoxylic wood, giving examples. (c) Give the classification of angiosperms as proposed by Hutchinson. Discuss its merits and demerits. http://www.civilserviceindia.com PAPER - II - 2005 Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300 Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any THREE of the remaining questions selecting at least ONE question from each Section. Provide diagrams in the answer books, wherever necessary. SECTION-A 1. Write notes on any THREE of the following in about 200 words each: 20x3=60 (a) Polytene Chromosome (b) Signal Transduction (c) Transgenic plants . (d) Standard deviation. 2. Describe in detail the ultrastructure of Golgi Complex and its function in membrane trafficking. 60 3. (a) Describe properties of Genetic Code. (b) Describe the role of RNA in origin and evolution. 60 4. Define hybrid vigour. Describe anyone method of hybridization for crop improvement. 60 SECTION B 5. Write notes on any THREE of the following in about 200 words each: 20x3 = 60 (a) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (b) Nitrogenases (c) Fruit-ripening (d) Afforestation 6. Define auxins. Describe their physiological response in plants. 60 7. Define biogeochemical cycles. Describe N-cycle. 60http://www.civilserviceindia.com C.S.E. (MAIN) BOTANY PAPER - I - 2004 Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300 Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. Provide diagrams in the answer books, wherever necessary. SECTION A 1. Answer any three of the following (in not more than 200 words each) : 20x3=60 (a) Differentiate between bacteria and cyanobacteria. (b)Give an account of algae in industry. (c) Discuss the sequential steps involved in host pathogen interaction. (d) Mention the indirect uses of Bryophytes. 2. Write about the following: 20x3=60 (a) Differentiate between homospory and heterospory. (b) Give an account of Rhynia. (c) Describe in detail the types of Ascocarps (Fruit bodies) in Ascomycotina and how they help in classification. 3. Write critical notes on the following: 20 x 3=60 (a) Sporocarp of Marsilea. (b) Tissue culture and its importance (c) Evolution of Sporophyte in Bryophytes 4. Write short notes on the following: 30 x 2=60 (a) Mention the causal organism, symptoms and control measures of bacterial blight in paddy, sandal spike and leaf spot in groundnut. (b) Give the role of bacteria in fermentation and mention the products. SECTION B 5. Answer any three of the following (in not more than 200 words each): 20x3=60 (a) Give the salient features of Cordaitales. (b) Explain the secondary growth fn Pinus stem. (c) Explain the Tunica Corpus theory. (d) Give an account of plant gums. 6. Write about the following: 30 x 2 =60 (a) Give an account of pollen grain morphology and application of palynology. (b) Discuss the role of chemotaxonomy and numerical taxonomy in systematics of Angiosperms. 7. Write critical notes on the following: 20x 3=60 (a) Floral structure and primitive characters of Magnoliaceae. (b) Floral structure and floral formula of Poaceae. (c) Differentiate between the pollinia of Asclepiadaceae and Orchidaceae. 8. Write short notes on the following: 20 x 3=60 (a) Give an account of beverage yielding plants. (b) Differentiate between xylem and phloem. (c) Give the salient features of Bentham and Hooker's system of classification. http://www.civilserviceindia.com PAPER - II - 2004 Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300 Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. Provide diagrams in the answer books, wherever necessary. SECTION A 1. Write notes on any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20x3=60 (a) Meiosis (b) Sex-linked inheritance (c) Mass selection (d) X2-test (Chi-squre test) 2. Describe in detail the structure and functions of mitochondria. 60 3. Discuss the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins. 60 4. (a) Describe the back-cross method of breeding in crop varieties. 30 (b) Describe in detail the various uses of back-cross method of breeding and its limitations. 30 SECTION B 5. Write notes on any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20 x 3=60 (a) Photoperiodism (b) Seed dormancy (c) Social forestry (d) Pollution control 6. Describe the principle categories of enzymes involved in respiratory reactions. 60 7. (a) What do you understand by mineral nutrition of crop plants? 20 (b) Describe the role of nitrogen, phosphorus and potash on plant growth. 40 8. (a) What do you understand by conservation of biodiversity? 20 (b) How is biodiversity conserved? 40 8. (a) What do you know about Social Forestry? (b) How would you measure the level of Air-Pollution? 60 http://www.civilserviceindia.com C.S.E BOTANY - 2005 (PRELIMINARY) Time Allowed: 2 hours Maximum Marks: 300 1. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sites known as (a) Telomeric sequences (b) Palindromic sequences (c) Terminator sequences (d) Attenuator sequences 2. Calcium dependent kinases can control (a) Cell cycle activities (b) DNA replication (c) Cell surface receptors (d) Mambrane structure 3. The proteins that reproduce within the living cells are termed as (a) Plasmids (b) Phages (c) Prions (d) Prophages 4. Which one of the following is involved in self-splicing of introns in Tetrahymena thermophile? (a) Primase (b) Ribozyme (c) Reverse transcriptase (d) RNA polymerase 5. Which one of the following plasmid vectors was consrtucted by combining centomere, telomere and autonomously replicating sequence? (a) pBR 322 (b) Cosmid (c) Yeast Artificial Chromosome (pYAC) (d) Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC) 6. Which one of the following increases the frequency of Agrobacterium mediated genetic transformation? (a) ASGorbic acid (b) Acetosyringone (c) Aflatoxin (d) Abscisic acid 7. The most commonly used method of choice for gene transfer using immature embryos as explants is (a) Microprojectile (b) Electroporation (c) Liposome mediated (d) Chemically stimulated 8. A pericentric inversion in chromosome involves (a) One arm of a chromosome (b) Both the arms of a chromosome (c) Two different chromosomes (d) More than two chromosomes 9. A red or orange dye used in dyeing silks is obtained from the pulp that surrounds the seeds of (a) Semecarpus anacardium (b) Emblica officinalis. (c) Bixa orellana (d) Aegle marmelos 10. Development of embryo from gametophute without the intervention of the gamete is known as (a) Apospory (b) Apogamy (c) Apomixis (d) Aposporogamy 11. The most common ionising radiation used for mutation in plant improvement programme is http://www.civilserviceindia.com (a) X-rays (b) UV-rays (c) Gama-rays (d) Protons 12. Who of the following made the first successful genetic transformation? (a) Boyer and Cohen (b) H. Smith (c) Nirenberg and Khorana (d) S.B. Weiss 13. Which one of the following is not a thermo stable enzyme? (a) Taq DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase (c) Pfu DNA polymerase (d) Vent polymerase 14. Microtubules are cylindrical structures having a and f3 tubulin proteins. They are the constituents of which one of the following groups? (a) Nucleus, Nucleolus, Nucleoid, Nuclear membrane (b) Centromere, Spindle fibres, Flagella, Cilia (c) Mitochondria, Lysosome, Chloroplast, Golgi apparatus (d) Chromosome, Chromo centre, Chromatid, Chromatin 15. With reference to the inhibition of protein synthesis by antibiotics, consider the following statemen.ts : 1. Chloramphenicol blocks initiation of transcription in prokaryotes. 2. Rifamycin inhibits the elongation of polypeptide chain in prokaryotes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 16. Consider the following statements: 1. Transfer RNA contains a number of rare bases that are not found in other nucleic acids. 2. During translation, the frame shift errors many times result in the synthesis of very useful proteins. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 17. Consider the following statements: 1. The eukaryotic mRNAs are metabolically more stable than the prokaryotic mRNAs. 2. The mRNAs of most prokaryotes are polycistronic, but the mRNAs of eukaryotes are monocistronic. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 18. Consider the following statements: In the phenomenon of photoperiodic induction to flowering, 1. the sites of perception for night length are young leaves. 2. the sites of response i.e., apical meristem, must be illuminated for flowering to take place. http://www.civilserviceindia.com Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 19. Consider the following statements: 1. The seed of pea is albuminous. 2. The fruit of peach is drupe. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 20. Match List I (Disease) with List II (Causal Organism) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I A. Blast disease of rice 1. Ustilago nuda B. Loose smut of wheat 2. Xanthomonas malvacearum C. Black arm of cotton 3. Ustilago scitaminae D. Whip smut of sugarcane 4. Pyricularia oryzae A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 21. Consider the following: 1. Bacillus subtilis 2. Trichoderma viride 3. Erysiphe graminis 4. Septoria glycines Which of the above antagonistic organisms is/are capable of suppressing plant disease? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 only 22. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The bunt of rice is found only in southern India. (b) The pathogen of the stem rot of rice belongs to Deuteromycetes. (c) The blast disease of rice affects the crop in all stages (d) In the brown spot disease of rice all parts of the plant are infected except roots. 23. Consider the following statements: 1. Trichoderma harzianum secretes cell wall lysing enzymes. 2. Bacillus penetrans is used to kill the nematode Meloidogyne sp. Which of the statements given above is/are correct '? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 24. Consider the following statements: 1. Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2. Azotobacter is a free - living organism in the soil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? http://www.civilserviceindia.com (a) 1 only. (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 25. Consider the following fungi: 1. Arthrobotrys oligospora 2. Dactylella cionopaga 3. Streptomyces rimosus Which of these are predaceous for the biological control of nematodes in soil '? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 26. Consider the following statements: 1. The Indian Board of Wildlife is headed by the Prime Minister 2. As per the latest 'State of Forest Report', the total forest cover in India is over 20% of the geographical area of the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 27. Consider the following statements: 1. Most mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear chromosomal DNA. . 2. UGA, a stop-codon for nuclear DNA is read as tryptophan in mitochondria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 28. Match List I (Institute) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A. Central Tabacoo Research Institute 1. Shimla B. Central Soil Salinity Research Institute 2. Jhansi C. Central Potato Research Institute 3. Kamal D. Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute 4. Rajahmundry 5. Guntur A B C D A B C D (a) 4 I 2 3 (b) 4 3 I 2 (c) 5 3 I 2 (d) 5 1 2 3 29. The Aggregate Fruit of lotus consists of fruitlets which are an aggregate of (a) Achenes (b) Berries (c) Drupes (d) Follicles Consider the following statements: 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil bacterium. 2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens was the first vector used for introduction of foreign DNA in plant cells. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only http://www.civilserviceindia.com (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 31. In numerical taxonomy, the taxonom'ic entity of the lowest rank used is (a) Operational taxonomic unit (b) Individual (c) Lines (d) Taxon 32. Elaters are absent in (a) Funaria (b) Marchantia (c) Pe/Jia (d) Porella 33. Salicornia is an example of (a) Epiphyte (b) Halophyte (c) Mesophyte (d) Parasite 34. An outgrowth of the funiculus near its top is known as (a) Aril (b) Baculum (c) Caruncle (d) Epiblast 35. Which one of the following gymnosperms reproduces both vegetatively as well as sexually? (a) Cycas (b) Cedrus (c) Ephedra (d) Pinus 36. Conspicuous sporophyte with indeterminate growth is a characteristic feature of (a) Bryophyta (b) Tracheophyta (c) Chlorophyta (d) Rhodophyta 37. Which one of the following structures is not found in any class of algae? (a) Rhizoid and apical cell (b) Apical cell (c) Embryo (d) Thalloid plant body 38. Consider the following statements: Marchantia polymorpha 1. is dioecious. 2. possesses antheridiophores and archegoniophores. 3. lacks foot and seta in its sporophyte 4. is heterosporous. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 39. Which one of the following species is used for the extraction of Geranium oil? (a) Cymba pagan flexuosus (b) Pelargonium groveolens (c) Rosa damascena (d) Schleichera trijuga 40. Which one of the following is a rod-shaped bacterium? (a) Bacillus subtilis (b) Pneumococcus pneumoniae (c) Streptococcus nigricans http://www.civilserviceindia.com (d) Vibrio cholera 41. In the gametophytic type of self - incompatibility, which of the following crosses would not be compatible? (a) S1S3 x S1S4 (b) S1S4 x S2S3 (c) S1S3 x S1S3 (d) S2S4 x S1S4 42. The objective of bud pollination, in which mature pollen is applied to immature non-receptive stigms generally 1 to 3 days prior to anthesis, is to (a) Hasten the maturity of pollinated stigma (b) Increase the viability period of pollen applied (c) Promote cross-pollination between related species (d) Overcome self-incompatibility 43. Consider the following with reference to sporophytic (SSI) or gametophytic (GSI) self-incompatibility systems: 1. SSI - 3 celled pollen, rejection reaction on the stigma. 2. GSI - 2 celled pollen, rejection reaction in the style. SSI - 2 celled pollen, rejection reaction in the style. 3. GSI - 3 celled pollen, rejection reaction on the stigma. Which of these features are correct in the case of sporophytic or gametophytic self - incompatibility systems? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 44. Seed dormancy can be broken by exposure to red light in (a) Lettuce (b) Pea (c) Tomato (d) Onion 45. Which one of the following phytohormones is known to contribute to hud dormancy? (a) Ehtylene (b) Coumarin (c) Cytokinin (d) ABA 46. In cereals, which one of the following kinds of leaves plays a key role in the supply of photosynthates to the developing grain? (a) Young leaves (b) Mature leaves (c) Flag leaves (d) Scale leaves 47. Perisperm is a post-fertilization modification of (a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument (c). Central cell (d) Inner integument 48. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) Pistia Sciophyte (b) Lemna Xerophyte (c) Rhizophora Halophyte (d) Casuarina Hydophyte 49. Match List I (Mangrove) with List Ii (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II http://www.civilserviceindia.com A. Bhitarkanika 1. Karnataka B. Coondapur 2. Kerala C. Pichavaram 3. Orissa D. Vembanad 4. Tamilnadu A B C D A B C D (a) 3 I 4 2 (a) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 50. Which one of the is a fatty acid polyester? (a) Agar (b) Lignin (c) Pectin (d) Suberin 51. Consider the following statements: 1. Bacterial DNA is not bound by histones. 2. Cycloheximide inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ') (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 52. Match List I (Plant) with List II (Family) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II A. Coffee 1. Orchidaceae B. Chocolate 2. Papavaraceae C. Opium 3. Rubiaceae D. Vanilla 4. Sterculiaceae A B C D A B C D (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 53. The maturation of anthers and stigmas at times in the same flower is known as (a) Herkogamy (b) Cleistogamy (c) Chasmogamy (d) Dichogamy 54. In photorespiration, RuBP carboxylase combines with oxygen to yield (a) Two molecules of phosphoglycerate (b) Two molecules of phosphoglycolate (c) One molecule of phosphoglycerate and one molecule of phosphoglycolate (d) Two molecules of glucose 55. Match List I (Colloquial Name) with List H (Plant) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II A. Adder's tongues 1. Lycopodium B. Horse tails 2. Sphagnum C. Club moss 3. Ophioglossum D. Bog moss 4. Equisetum http://www.civilserviceindia.com A B C D A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 Directions: The following six (6) items consist of two statement, one labeled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Assertion 56. Assertion (A): Tissues removed from crown gall tumours can be grown in culture without the addition of auxin and cytokinin. Reason (R): The bacterial plasmid contains the genes for the synthesis of plant auxin and cytokinin. 57. Assertion (A): Lateral buds close to the shoot apex remain dormant while those some distance below the apical meristem develop into shoots. Reason (R): Apical shoot meristems and young leaves are the centres of IAA synthesis. 58. Assertion (A): Some plant species grow poorly in nature if the soil fungi are killed with a fungicide. Reason (R): The mycorrhizal fungi transport nitrate into the plant and receive phosphate in return. 59. Assertion (A): New characters are evolved in homogenous population due to organism-environmental interaction. Reason (R): Homogenous populations are prone to genetic mutations. 60. Assertion (A): Folding and rolling movements in certain grasses are caused by the loss of turgor in bulliform cells. Reason (R): Bulliform cells are found in the horizontal rows in the leaf epidermis. 61. Assertion (A): Self-incompatibility is not an absolute phenomenon. Reason (R): Even highly self-incompatible species can be self-pollinated by one stratagem or another. 62. Which one of the following correctly represents 'Homoplastic' condition? (a) Similar characters of two or more taxa resulting from convergent or parallel evolution. (b) Descent of two or more taxa from a recent common ancestor. (c) Similar characters observed in different individuals of the same population. (d) Development of different organs from the undifferentiated callus during the course of somatic tissue culture 63. The evolution of cultivated cotton is an example of (a) Distant hybridization and polyploidy (b) Diploidization of sterile F 1 (c) lntergeneric hybridization and polyploidy http://www.civilserviceindia.com (d) Interspecific hybridization and polyploidy 64. The spontaneous mutations in nature are mostly (a) Recessive and lethal (b) Dominant and beneficial (c) Dominant and lethal (d) Recessive and beneficial 65. When individuals of F1 progeny backcross with either of the parents than by mating with each other, the process is called (a) Interprogeny hybridization (b) Interpopulation hybridization (c) Introgressive hybridization (d) Syfnpatric hybridization 66. Periderm includes (a) Phelloderm, collenchyma and cortex (b) Phellem, cambium and cortex (c) All the tissues between epidermis and pith (d) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm 67. Automaticillly typified names of suborders end in (a) -ales (b) -ineae (c) -oideae (d) -eae 68. A transitional form between tracheid and libriform fibre is termed as (a) Bast fibre (b) Septate fibre (c) Fibre-sclereid (d) Fibre-tracheid 69. Vertically elongated cells in the lateral meristem producing axial system in the secondary xylem and pholem are known as (a) Fusiform initials (b) Cambiform cells (c) Phellogen cells (d) Ray initials 70. Consider the following: 1. Hydathodes 2. Salt glands 3. Nectaries 4. Lenticels Which of these are secretory structures? (a) I, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 71. The family in which members show transition from superior to inferior ovary is (a) Asteraceae (b) Commelinaceae (c) Papilionaceae (d) Rosaceae 72. In the root apex, that meristem from which the root cap develops independently of all other initials of the apical meristem is known as (a) Calyptrogen (b) Casparian strip (c) Columella (d) Corpus http://www.civilserviceindia.com 73. Consider the following statements: Nomenclature for a taxon is necessary because 1. vernacular names are not universal. 2. two or more unrelated species are known by the same common name. 3. vernacular names do not provide information on generic relationship. 4. vernacular names are not available for all the species. Which of these statements are correct? (a) I and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) I, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 74. The taxonomic category 'Class' is between (a) Order and Family (b) Order and Genus (c) Kingdom and Phylum (d) Division and Order 75. When the generic name and the specific epithet, in a binomial have exactly the same spelling, the binomial is known as (a) Autonym (b) Basionym (c) Synonym (d) Tautonym 76. Besides Orchidaceae, pollinia are also found in (a) Asclepiadaceae (b) Bignoniaceae (c) Poaceae (d) Scrophulariaceae 77. The most primitive type of stamens are found in (a) Degeneria (b) Lilium (c) Papaver (d) Solanum 78. Match List I (Stain with List II (Cellular Part) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A. Toluidine blue 1. Fats B. Safranin 2. Lignin C. Cotton blue 3. RNA D. Osmium tetroxide 4. Fungal hyphae A B C D A B C D (a) I 2 4 3 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 4 2 3 79. Which one of the following tracer elements can be incorporated in both DNA and RNA? (a) 14C - Guanine (b) 14C - Uracil (c) 3H - Cytosine (d) 3H - Thymidine 80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Name of plant Part used in vegetative reproduction (a) Adiantum caudatum: Sub-aerial root (b) Chrysanthemum: Sub-aerial stem (c) Pineapple: Reproduction bud at the end of inflorescence (d) Kalanchoe: Adventitious buds from the leaf http://www.civilserviceindia.com 81. The fixation of CO2 to malate and its decarboxylation are common to both C4 and CAM plants, but in CAM plants these events (a) Are separated spatially (b) Are separated temporally (c) Require high light intensity (d) Require high CO2 concentration 82. What is the primary acceptor of CO2 in Hatch-Slack cycle? (a) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid (b) Ribulose biphosphate (c) Phosphoglyceric acid (d) Diphosphoglyceric acid 83. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Drug Part of the plant giving the drug (a) Colchicin: Bulb (b) Digitoxin: Leaves (c) Ephedrin: Entire plant (d) Cocaine: Roots 84. A universal hydrogen acceptor in an electron transport system is (a) ATP (b) UDP (c) NAD (d) FMN 85. Consider the following: 1. Succinic dehydrogenase 2. Aconitase 3. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 4. Isocitric dehydrogenase What is the correct order in which the above enzymes catalyse the reactions in Kreb's cycle? (a) I - 2 - J - 4 (b) 2 - 4 - I - 3 (c) 3 - 2 - 4 - I (d) 2 - 4 - 3 - I 86. Consider the following enzymes: 1. Glutamate dehydrogenase 2. Glutamine synthetase 3. Glutamate synthase Which of these are concerned with ammonia assimilation? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 87. In all the nitrogren-fixers, the enzyme nitrogenase, that helps in the transfer of electrons from NADH to N=N, is located inside a thick protective covering because this protective covering (a) Regulates the supply of oxygen (b) Provides an anaerobic atmosphere protecting the enzyme from oxidation (c) Acts as an oxygen scavenger http://www.civilserviceindia.com (d) Regulates the supply of sugars for anaerobic oxidation 88. Consider the following organisms: 1. Clostridium pasteurianum 2. Klebsiella pneumoniae 3. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans Which of the above are free living nitrogen fixing organisms? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) I and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 89. The increases respiration rate due specifically to anion uptake is called (a) Salt respiration (b) Active absorption (c) Exchange absorption (d) Ground respiration 90. Match List I (Scientist) with List II (Isotope Used,) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A. Calvin 1. 180 B. Ruben and Kamen 2. 32p C. Volkin and Astrachan 3. 14C D. Meselson and Stahl 4. 15 N A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 I 4 (b) 4 I 2 3 (c) 4 2 I 3 (d) 3 I 2 4 91. Which one of the following pairs is not matched? (a) Copper: Plasticyanin (b) Sulphur: Serine (c) Molybdenum: Nitrate reductase (d) Zinc: Alcohol dehydrogenase 92. Addition of KCN reduces the rate of water absorption in the root. This indicates that water absorption is a/an (a) Passive process (b) Energy dependent process (c) Osmotic difference, dependent process (d) Exchange diffusion process 93. Consider the following events involved in stomatal opening: 1. Turgor pressure of guard cells increases. 2. K+ ions move into guard cells. 3. pH of guard cells decreases. 4. Water moves into guard cells. What is the correct sequence of these events leading to stomatal opening: (a) 2 - 4 - 3 – I (b) 3 - 2 - 4 - I (c) 2 - 3 - 4 - I (d) 3 - I - 2 - 4 http://www.civilserviceindia.com 94. Match List I (Life form) with List II (Means of Surviving the Stess) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A Chamaephytes 1. Buds are underground on rhizomes, bulbs, corms B. Geophytes 2. Buds are located at the surface of soil, protected by leaf and stem bases C. Hemicryptophytes 3. Annual life span; survive the stress as seeds D. Therophytes 4. Buds are locate a above ground, but low enough not to be exposed to strong winds A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 I 4 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 4 I 2 3 (d) 4 2 I 3 95. Which one of the following is popularly associated with the name of Justus Liebig? (a) Law of the Minimum (b) Law of Tolerance (c) Ecological Niche (d) Speciation 96. Which one of the following ecological pyramids is always upright? (a) Pyramid of numbers (b) Pyramid of biomass (c) Pyramid of energy (d) Age pyramid of plant populations 97. The oil of which one of the following plants is edible and rich in poly unsaturated fatty acids? (a) Aleurites fordii (b) Cocos nucifera (c) Carthamus tinctorius (d) Ricinus communis 98. Match List I (Plant) withList II (Use) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A Annas cosmosus 1. Fibre B. Dolichos biflorus 2. Oil C. Elaeis guinensis 3. Pulse D. Manihot glaziovii 4. Rubber A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 99. Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry ? (a) Mild sulphuric acid (b) Glucose isomerase (c) Chloroflurocarbon (d) Chlorine and water 100. Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because (a) There are cheomosomal abnormalities (b) Monosomics are produced (c) Enrichment of genetic diversity occurs http://www.civilserviceindia.com (d) It gives high genetic uniformity 101. Consider the following statments : 1. The first living organisms on planet Earth originated in water. 2. When life originated on planet Earth, the atmosphere contained nitrogen, ammonia, ozone, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 102. In crop improvement programmes, haploids are of great importance because they (a) Grow better even under adverse climatic conditions (b)Are useful in studies of meiosis. (c) Have less requirement for energy inputs (d) Give homozygous lines following diploidization 103. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Production of sulphur dioxide: Burning of coal (b) Depletion of ozone layer: Release of chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere (c) Eutrophication: Increase in nitrogen and phosphorus contents in aquatic bodies (d) Decrease in B.O.D. of pond water: Increase in global temperature 104. The National Wasteland Development Board now renamed Department of Land Resources is under the Union Ministry of (a) Agriculture (b) Environment and Forests (c) Planning (d) Rural Development 105. Which one of the following was the objective of signing the 'Montreal Protocol? (a) Protection of Wildlife (b) Protection of ozone layer (c) Control over the use of insecticides (d) Control of noise pollution 106. Which one of the following is correct to measure l3-diversity ? (a) Species richness within an ecosystem (b) Species evenness equitability (c) Degree of change in species composition along an environmental gradient (d) Species diversity of several habitats in a large geographical region 107. The number of individuals in each population that can live in a particular ecosystem is limited; and that number is known as . (a) Biotic potential (b) Carrying capacity (c) Intrinsic natural increase (d) Reproductive capacity http://www.civilserviceindia.com 108. Consider the following codons: 1. UAA 2. UAC 3. UAG Which of these are considered to be the termination codons in protein synthesis? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 109. The function of 'reverse transcriptase' is to (a) Transcribe a complementary DNA from an RNA strand (b) Transcribe a complementary RNA from an RNA strand (c) Translate messages for protein synthesis (d) Replicate DNA from a DNA strand 110. Match List I (Scientist) with List II (Associated With) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A. Garner and Allard 1. Vernalisation B. Gregory and Purvis 2. Physiological clocks C. Chailakhyan 3. Photoperiodism D. Bunning 4. Florigen concept A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 I 3 (b) 2 I 4 3 (c) 3 4 I 2 (d) 3 I 4 2 111. The shoot branching depends upon the development of axillary buds, but many of the buds in axillary position never grow out due to the (a) Inhibitory factor present in the axillary bud (b) Inhibitory factor present in the apical bud (c) Interaction of factors present in both the axillary & apical bud (d) Inhibition under genetic control 112. Consider the following statements: 1. Anabasine 2. Anthocyanins 3. Betanidin Which of these are coloured flavonoids? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) I, 2 and 3 113. Growth of the pollen tube occurs (a) Over its entire length (b) At apical and subapical zones (c) At'apical zone only (d) At subapical zone only http://www.civilserviceindia.com 114. Apospory is the development of an offspring from the (a) Cell of nucellus (b) Synergids or antipodals (c) Haploid female gamete (d) Haploid microspore 115. In which type of tapetum do the pro top lasts of tapetal cells mix or fuse and surround the developing microscopes in the anther? (a) Glandular tapetum (b) Secretory tapetum (c) Amoeboid tapetum (d) Dual tapetum 116. Which one of the following shows the last diploid stage in the life cycle of angiosperms? (a) Microspore mother cell (b) Zygote (c) Nucellus (d) Pollen grain 117. Match List I (Phenomenon) with List II (Scientist) and I select the correct answer using the code given below I the lists: List I List II A. Fertilization 1. Treub B. Triple fusion 2. Camerarius C. Pollination 3. Strasburger D. Chalazogamy 4. Nawaschin A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 2 4 I (d) I 4 2 3 118. The fertilization in which the entry of pollen tube into the ovule through the funiculus is known as (a) Acrogamy (b) Chalazogamy (c) Mesogamy (d) Porogamy 119. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Britten and Davidson: Gene regulation in eukaryotes (b) Hershey and Chase: DNA as the hereditary material (c) Feulgen and Rossenbeck: Localization of DNA in chromosomes (d) Bateson and Punnet: Replication of DNA 120. Which one of the following plants is pollinated by bat? (a) Bombax ceiba (b) Calotropis procera (c) Mucuna gigantean (d) Nicotiana glauca |
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